similarly to what we did in class this morning for S (cell 10,1) :
in this grammar, verbs can only be at a start of a VP, with a required complement.
Both possible complements fit here (not required for this question, only one is enough), thus at least a VP.
But also nothing else than a VP because verbs can only be there (or in any similar rule coming from CNF transformation, thus Y for instance).
Does it make sense?
in this grammar, verbs can only be at a start of a VP, with a required complement.
Both possible complements fit here (not required for this question, only one is enough), thus at least a VP.
But also nothing else than a VP because verbs can only be there (or in any similar rule coming from CNF transformation, thus Y for instance).
Does it make sense?
