Hello,
Part of the proof of Lemma 6.1 is to get a bound on (*).
In the script (page 68), it says that "for no more than
, this probability is very close to 1 ".
If , then
, so the probability above (*) becomes
.
However, I don't see why this is very close to 1. Could you help me with an explanation?
Cheers,
Andreea