Hi All,
In the following question, it is said to compute P(T1~n/W1~n). I know that if we want to maximize P(T1~n/W1~n), we don't need the value of P(W1~n) (the first option)because it is a positive constant.
But here what the question said is to compute P(T1~n/W1~n), I think P(W1~n) should be needed because it's the denominator when we use the Bayes rule.
Can someone explain this? Thank you very much!
